|
Some
argue that the word apoluo, as used in Matthew 5:32, 19:9, must refer to
divorce. Although they admit that the word itself actually means to "send
away," "repudiate," or "put away," they claim that it
was used during Christ's lifetime to refer to the whole process of divorce,
which included a writ of divorcement. This assertion, that apoluo refers
to divorce (even though the most reliable versions do not so translate it) is
commonly made by preachers in their effort to defend what we call, for lack of
a better term, the traditional MDR doctrine.
We
all have to admit that people sometimes do not really say what they mean. For
example, a man comes into my office, hands me a piece of paper and says,
"Will you Xerox this for me?" He used the noun "Xerox" as a
verb. Thus, those who do not know that Xerox was the first (or one of the
first) copy machines, might not even know what the man was talking about.
After
years of being puzzled as to what is truth on the divorce and remarriage issue
I finally came to the conclusion that the subject is really very simple. A
divorce, as defined by Moses (Deut 24:1-4), ends the marriage and frees the parties
to marry another. Thus, divorce does what it was designed by God to do.
Nevertheless, it is no secret that the majority of Bible students believe that
we are to look to Jesus' teaching to the Jews and make the teachings applicable
to people of a different dispensation. But what if Jesus is misunderstood and
doctrine is attributed to him that he never intended? No one argues against the
idea that apoluo means "put away" or "send away,"
yet it is insisted by many that because the people, in the ancient language,
meant divorce, then it is proper to translate apoluo as divorce. And
this is supposed to prove that Jesus was teaching that the divorced may not
marry unless they divorced their spouse for the cause of fornication. Well,
regardless of what the Pharisees (who questioned Jesus) meant, Jesus dealt with what they said when they asked him about “putting away.”
When
one uses the phrase "put away" when referring to the marital
relationship he does not fully communicate that he is talking about anything
more than a permanent separation. A
separation is not a divorce, as defined by Moses, although some gospel
preachers, to the detriment of their integrity, are saying divorce and separation
are the same thing and that Deuteronomy 24:1-4 has no bearing on the divorce
issue.
It
is important that we understand what a divorce is and what it is not. Let us
now note a couple of definitions from Random House Dictionary and make
some observations:
Divorce
1. Law. a judicial declaration dissolving a marriage
in whole or in part, esp. one that released the husband and wife from all
matrimonial obligations.
2. Any formal separation of man and wife according to
established custom, as among uncivilized tribes.
3. Total separation; disunion: a divorce between thought
and action
4. To separate by divorce: The judge divorced the
couple.
5. To break the marriage contract between oneself and
[one's spouse] by divorce: She divorced her husband.
Judicial separation
Law: a decree of legal separation of husband and wife
that does not dissolve the marriage bond. Also called limited divorce.
It
is irresponsible to argue that a divorce and a separation are the same thing
because both are involved in the definition of divorce as given to us from God.
(Why, even a "judicial separation" is not a divorce.) And, one can
separate from his wife yet not be divorced, which is evident from the fact that
no divorce decree has been written or given, and that the couple can get back
together without having to marry again. This was the situation of which Paul
spoke in 1 Corinthians 7:11.
How
did the Jews know Jesus was responding to what they said rather than what is asserted that they meant? Evidently they did understand Jesus to have responded to
what they first said (or asked) because they never charged Jesus with teaching
contrary to the Law that allowed the divorced to marry. Also, we must remember
what Jesus said, recorded in Matthew 5:17-19, before he ever uttered a word
that related to the MDR issue. Jesus, in the words of the text noted above,
made it clear that he was not intending to change the Law of Moses by saying
what he was to immediately thereafter say—verse 31-32 of the same chapter,
which is the misunderstood teaching on which the traditional MDR doctrine is
based. This is a major point that must not be ignored or overlooked.
Jesus
used the word "apoluo,"
which means “put away,” when he was talking about a practice that results in
adultery. If He meant something other than a legal divorce that ends the
marriage, could he have made that clear to his listeners? Yes, with non-verbal
communication, if even needed, he could have clearly communicated that he was
talking only about separation. Let me give you an example: The place where I
work is rented. I'm responsible to assure that the facility meets the needs of
the agency for which I work. This requires that I consult with the landlord
from time to time regarding repairs that need to be made. Usually when the
landlord sees me coming he knows it is going to cost him some money, and so he
does not like me to bring up these matters. At any rate, I once went to the
landlord and as I was explaining the problem we had he gestured with his foot—a
kicking motion. I immediately took it that he was talking about kicking our
agency out of the house—"putting away" if you will, even though not a
single “word” was even used to convey that idea. He was talking about sending
us out on the street.
Often,
especially in some languages, gestures, facial expressions and voice changes
(the way you say the word) are helpful, and sometimes essential, to communicate
effectively. Thus, it is reasonable to conclude that those who saw and heard
Jesus speak what is recorded in Matthew Chapters 5 and 19, understood Him to
have meant nothing more than what He actually said when he used the word apoluo (put away), even though the word
may have been commonly used of an actual legal divorce. For instance, Jesus
might have said, “Whoever puts away
his wife . . .” And he may have looked around at those who were guilty of
sending away their wives without a divorce decree, letting them know that he
was aware of their treacherous behavior. We cannot know, because we were not
there, but the language itself literally means to send away; and when we look
at the rest of the scriptures and harmonize them with Jesus’ words and God’s
character, and also realize that to believe that Jesus taught new doctrine
contrary to the Law is totally unacceptable, we can know that Jesus did indeed
mean simply “put away.”
The
point of all of this is to rebut the argument that apoluo must mean divorce because most scholars say that is what it
means based on how the word may have been generally or occasionally used at the
time, in the context of marriage. Nevertheless, when all things are considered
we have to understand that the Jews did not perceive Jesus be contradicting
Moses, regarding divorced persons having the right to marry again, but they
instead perceived him to be rebuking them for "putting away" and thus
making a very difficult situation for their women—a situation described as adultery and treachery against the woman (Mark 10:11; Mal 2:15). |
