Robert fails to state the issue correctly. He wrote: “Brother Thrasher states that he is happy to deny that divorced people are free to marry.” I actually said, “Thomas Thrasher is pleased to deny the Bible teaches” that “ALL divorced persons may marry” (Matthew 19:9; 5:32). I do not “deny that divorced people are free to marry,” since some of them are free (Matthew 19:9; Romans 7:2-3). I am again pleased to deny Robert’s unscriptural affirmation that “all divorced persons may marry.” He still has not found one verse proving his proposition.
In the absence of that proof, Robert claims to have two other proofs for his proposition:
1. “Part of my proof is the fact that Jesus promised that nothing about the Law would change before the cross.” However, Jesus taught that His law (the NT) would be different (“But I say to you ...”—Matthew 5:22,28,32,34,44), and He began teaching them about His law during His ministry (Matthew 4:17). Robert admitted this: “Indeed, Jesus did often do what Tom affirms.” Therefore, if we believe the Bible, we will recognize that NT law is different from OT law: “For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law” (Hebrews 7:12). Deuteronomy 24:1-4 is OT law, not Jesus’ marriage law now!
2. “I showed the clear teaching of Paul regarding the ‘unmarried’. He said, ‘Let them marry.’” Robert seems to have 1 Corinthians 7:9 in mind. However, he fails to prove that the “unmarried” of this verse include all divorced people, especially when Paul in this context specifies only two options for some: “remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband” (verse 11). Furthermore, my opponent’s view contradicts Jesus’ teaching (Matthew 5:32; 19:9).
In my initial article, I answered the first three of Robert’s six questions. Misjudging my motives, he remarked, “Tom ... particularly does not want to answer #4.” However, I had already explained that “because of space limitations, I will address three questions now and the remaining three in my next article.” I will proceed to do that now.
4. Can one be "put away, sent out of the house, repudiated" yet not divorced?
Answer: One can be “put away” (1 Corinthians 5:13), “sent out” (Acts 7:12), or “repudiated” (Acts 3:13-14, NEB) without being divorced from a husband or wife. However, the Lord taught that marriages involving divorced people may involve adultery (Luke 16:18—“Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery.”). According to the Lord, some “divorced” people may NOT scripturally marry!
5. How could Jesus have been speaking to Jews yet it not be applicable to them?
Answer: I explained this in my first article. Jesus’ teaching often pointed people to a time beyond Moses’ law to the arrival of His kingdom (Matthew 4:17— “From that time Jesus began to preach ... Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”). For example, He taught people about the Lord’s supper (Matthew 26:26-29; Mark 14:22-25; Luke 22:19-20), the new birth (John 3:3-5), and church discipline (Matthew 18:17). Although He kept Moses’ law perfectly while it was still in effect, He also prepared people for service to God according to the “new testament” (Hebrews 9:15; 12:24; 2 Corinthians 3:6-11). While His life was consistent with the law of Moses, Jesus proclaimed New Testament doctrines in anticipation of His kingdom. Consequently, what Jesus taught had application to all people under the NT.
However, Jesus’ also explained truth that was relevant to the Pharisees at the time He spoke to them by pointing them to God’s original intent on marriage and divorce (Matthew 19:4-6—“... Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”). The Lord applied at least two points to them: God’s intent concerning marriage goes back to “the beginning” (Genesis 2:24), and Moses’ command (Deuteronomy 24:1-4) was given because of the hardness of their hearts. This answers Robert’s false charge that “it is ludicrous to contend that Jesus’ words did not apply to the people to whom He addressed – the Pharisees.”
6. If apoluo, as used by Jesus, refers only to separation how would this fact affect the way you believe and practice relative to MDR, and how would it affect the church?
Answer: Apoluo does not refer “only to separation,” according to a great number of lexicographers and translators, so I see no benefit in speculating. For some reason, Robert chooses to deny that “divorce” is one definition of apoluo (e.g., Thayer, 1967, p. 66; BAGD, 1979, p. 96).
In his second article, Robert asked five additional questions to which I will now respond.
1. What NT passage authorizes divorce?
Answer: Matthew 19:9 authorizes divorce “for sexual immorality.” Jesus said, “... Whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery ...” One who divorces a spouse for another reason “and marries another, commits adultery.”
2. What NT passage defines a divorce?
Answer: To my knowledge, no NT passage defines divorce. However, the NT clearly teaches that some divorces involve sin:
Matthew 5:32—“But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”
Matthew 19:9—“And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”
Mark 10:11-12—“So He said to them, ‘Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.’”
Luke 16:18—“Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery.”
1 Corinthians 7:11—“... a husband is not to divorce his wife.”
3. What NT passage shows that it is wrong for a man to simply send his wife away (without divorce papers, resulting in separation) and marry another?
Answer: To my knowledge, the only NT passage directly addressing “separation” (without divorce) of husband and wife is 1 Corinthians 7:5—“Do not deprive one another except with consent for a time, that you may give yourselves to fasting and prayer, and come together again so that Satan does not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.” Divorce and marriage to another have no approval in this authorized (temporary) separation.
4. Do you think you can understand and apply Matthew 19:9 without understanding and applying Deut. 24:1-4?
Answer: We can understand Jesus’ words pertaining to His NT law (“And I say to you ...” —Matthew 19:9) without understanding what Moses taught in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 (what Moses permitted, Matthew 19:8). Jesus’ teaching on divorce and remarriage is different from Moses’ teaching. However, understanding the entire context of Matthew 19:3-12 involves some understanding of Deuteronomy 24:1-4. Nevertheless, we can obey Jesus’ instructions (Matthew 19:9) without an understanding of Moses’ instructions (Deuteronomy 24:1-4).
5. Do you think one who uses God's definition of a divorce (the three essential parts), given in Deut., is seeking to be justified by the law?
Answer: I do not know what they are “seeking” to do. However, when the Pharisees posed the question about Moses’ divorce procedure in Deuteronomy 24:1-2, Jesus did not say, “That is what my disciples should do, too.” Instead He said, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.” The precise details (including legal requirements) of the divorce procedure are not specified in the NT. However, if a municipality enacted Deuteronomy 24:1-4 as its legally recognized procedure for a person to obtain a divorce, it would be contrary to the Lord’s instructions: “
Since Robert propounded 11 questions, I will return the favor.
1. Can a man scripturally divorce his wife today without following all three steps: writing her a certificate of divorce, putting the certificate in her hand, and sending her out of his house?
2. Alfred divorces Bertha for some reason other than sexual immorality by following the steps of Deuteronomy 24:1-2. Alfred remains unmarried; Bertha marries Calvin. After Calvin dies, can Bertha marry any unmarried man of her choosing, assuming he wants to marry her? If not, explain why.
3. If “all divorced persons may (scripturally) marry,” do you believe that “all married persons may (scripturally) divorce”? If not, which married persons may scripturally divorce and which may not?
4. Do you think Christians can practice what the Lord taught in Mark 14:22-25 without understanding Exodus 12:1-28?
5. Who may scripturally marry?
6. Who may scripturally divorce?
7. What is the difference between being “bound” to one man and being “married” to another (Romans 7:2-3)?
8. Is a woman who has been “divorced” by her husband a “put away” woman?
9. Did Jesus teach any NT doctrines before the cross? If so, name them.
10. Can being in an unscriptural marriage keep one from going to heaven?
11. What differences exist when contrasting God’s marriage law in the beginning, under Moses’ law, and under Christ’s law?
Robert identifies a major point at issue when he claims, “The word ‘apoluo’ is falsely translated and errantly believed to be the same as divorce” and “‘apoluo’ is used 87 times in the NT and no Bible evidence (from the context) shows that the word ever refers to divorce.” My opponent presumes to have a superior knowledge of Greek than a great host of Greek grammarians, lexicographers, and translators. Because of limited space, I will cite only a few examples in refutation of his claim about apoluo.
Greek-English New Testament Lexicon (Berry, 1952): “... to release, let go, to send away, ... divorce ...” (p. 12)
Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (Thayer, 1967): “... to set free ... to let go, dismiss ... to let go free, to release ... used of divorce ... Mt. i.19; v. 31 sq; xix.3, 7-9; Mk. x.2, 4, 11; Lk. Xvi.18 ... ” (p. 66)
The Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker, 1979): “... set free, release, pardon ...let go, send away, dismiss—a. divorce ... Mt 1:19; 5:31f; 19:3, 7-9; Mk 10:2, 4, 11 ... Lk 16:18 ...” (p. 96)
Shorter Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (Gingrich, 1975): “... release,, set free, pardon ... let go, send away, dismiss, ... Divorce ...” (p. 24)
Index-Lexicon to the New Testament (Young, n.d.): “...dismiss, divorce, forgive, let depart, let go, loose, put away, release, send away, set at liberty ...” (p. 61)
A Concise Dictionary of the Words in the Greek Testament (Strong, 1890): “... to free fully ... relieve, release, dismiss ... divorce ...” p. 14)
The Analytical Greek Lexicon (Zondervan, 1970): “... to loose ... to release ... to divorce to remit, forgive ... to liberate, discharge ... to dismiss ... to allow to depart, to send away ...” (p. 46)
An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words (Vine, 1966): “... to let loose from, let go free ... it is further used of divorce in Matt. 1:19; 19:3, 7-9; Mark 10:2, 4, 11; Luke 16:18 ...” (vol. I, p. 329)
The Englishman’s Greek Concordance of the New Testament (Wigram, 1970): “... depart, dismiss, divorce, forgive, let depart, let go, loose, put away, release, send away, set at liberty” (p. 953)
Learn To Read the Greek New Testament (Powers, 1982): “release/send away/divorce/ forgive” (p. 321)
Teach Yourself New Testament Greek (Macnair, 1995): “release, send away, divorce” (p. 462)
New King James Version: “But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”
New American Standard Version: “But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the cause of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
New International Version: “But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to commit adultery, and anyone who marries a woman so divorced commits adultery.”
Revised Standard Version: “But I say to you that every one who divorces his wife, except on the ground of unchastity, makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
New English Bible: “But what I tell you is this: If a man divorces his wife for any cause other than unchastity he involves her in adultery; and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
Today’s English Version: “But I tell you: if a man divorces his wife for any cause other than her unfaithfulness, then he is guilty of making her commit adultery if she marries again; and the man who marries her commits adultery also.”
A New Translation: “But I tell you, anyone who divorces his wife for any reason except unchastity makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.”
King James Version: “But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.”
I have a little space to mention a few of Robert’s remarks on my “relevant comments.” He admits that several passages cited in his first affirmative do not prove his proposition that “all divorced persons may marry.”
Robert says, “I presented Lev. 18:6-18 to support the fact that certain marriages were forbidden.” Therefore, this passage provides no proof of his proposition. Robert admitted Leviticus 20:10, 21 “does not prove ... [his] position true.” Yet, he is supposed to be proving HIS PROPOSITION!
I asked Robert how his reference to Mark 6:18 offers “proof that it is lawful for all divorced persons to marry?” He responded, “Herod needed to ‘put away’ his ‘unlawful wife.’” I agree! John charged, “It is not lawful for you to have your brother’s wife.” However, Robert still fails to find here the doctrine that “all divorced persons may marry.”
Concerning 1 Corinthians 5:1, Robert says, “This is another example supporting my point above.” However, it is not an example that proves “all divorced persons may marry.” Robert, how about giving a verse to prove your PROPOSITION?
Commenting upon my statements about Matthew 19:9, Robert says, “It indeed sets forth a scenario where adultery is committed due to an unlawful marriage.” Therefore, it also does not prove his proposition!
Robert states: “I do not know what evidence it would take to prove to my opponent that the Bible teaches that divorced persons may marry.” Just ONE BIBLE VERSE teaching “ALL divorced persons may marry” would suffice, Robert!
Link to the First Article in this debate:
http://www.totalhealth.bz/thrasher-waters-divorce1.htm