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Has the church where you worship been guilty of "forbidding to marry?" Maybe you don't know what I'm talking about. Well, it is an evil practice that the apostle Paul put into the category of "doctrines of devils" (1 Tim. 4:1-3). He said, "in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils...forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats."
If your preacher or the leadership tells you that Jesus taught that a divorced person must remain celibate, then they are guilty of "forbidding to marry." Some claim this warning applied only to Catholics who forbid priests and nuns to marry. But if that practice is sinful for them, why would it not also be sinful for anyone else who imposes the same restriction? They say a person must remain celibate to be a priest; others say a divorced person must remain celibate to be a Christian. Both doctrines serve the devil by encouraging fornication. For this reason, Paul commanded that every man and every woman be allowed to have a spouse (1 Cor. 7:1,2).
Would someone violate the "forbidding to marry" passage by teaching that eating meat is sinful? Clearly, Paul warned that some would be teaching it and that it is contrary to his teaching. Your preacher may recognize this point yet still teach that some unmarried people are not eligible to marry. He may even claim that Jesus taught such a restriction, but that cannot be true, for such would make Paul, who wrote by inspiration, contradict Jesus regarding this matter of "forbidding to marry" (a doctrine of devils) and his command regarding the "unmarried" to "let them marry" (1 Cor. 7:8,9).
Your preacher may argue that Jesus clearly said a "put away" person commits adultery by marrying. That statement is true, but the error is assuming and teaching that "put away" (from the Greek apoluo) means divorce. Because of Catholic influence on translators, many Bible versions render apoluo as "divorce," though many do not, including the ASV, which many consider highly accurate. The word appears in the N.T. about 69 times, and its usual meaning is "send." Thayer lists "used of divorce" not at the beginning, but near the end of his definitions. Indeed, the word WAS "used of divorce" but by men who either did not know God or the Scriptures or did not respect them. Even today, some gospel preachers insist that "send away" or "put away" means divorce. In their writing, they often use "put away" as though deliberately forcing it to carry that meaning. Let's test that assumption:
Consider Luke 14:2, which helps clarify the meaning of apoluo, a word many have assumed means divorce.
Luke 14:2 And, behold, there was a certain man before him which had the dropsy. 3 And Jesus answering spake unto the lawyers and Pharisees, saying, Is it lawful to heal on the sabbath day? 4 And they held their peace. And he took him, and healed him, and let him go;
Apoluo is the word from which "let him go" is translated.
If apoluo meant (means) divorce, then Jesus divorced the man after healing him - something we know did not happen.
In God's command or instructions for ending a marriage, (Deut. 24:1,2), we see the word "send" translated from the Hebrew word shalach. "Send her out of the house." This word corresponds to the Greek word apoluo, which also means "send."
The text:
When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.
Your preacher may argue that this passage is from the Old Testament and therefore does not apply to us today. First, however, it gives God's timeless and specific teaching on divorce - details not repeated in the New Testament. Second, your preacher should consider the insight of both Jesus and Jeremiah (who we will go back to shortly). The Pharisees, trying to get Jesus to contradict Moses, questioned Him about divorce. Look with me at the text:
(Mark 10:2,3) And the Pharisees came to him, and asked him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife? tempting him. And he answered and said unto them, What did Moses command you?
His answer was, "What did Moses command you?" What Moses commanded is found in Deut. 24, which we read a moment ago.
To end the marriage, the man had to complete three actions: write the bill of divorcement, place it in her hand, and send her away. Together, these actions dissolved the marriage.
Moses said that she could then "go and be another man's wife." Jesus did not object to Moses' teaching, which was God's teaching. His objection was to men thinking they could divorce their wives for any cause and, even more seriously, to men ignoring the required procedure by merely sending a woman away (permanently) while leaving the marriage intact. This is likely what Jesus meant when he said such a man committeth adultery against her (Mark 10:11). It was a treacherous act because the woman would be left on her own, unable to live with or marry another man without being accused of adultery. Even under the threat of death, she might be driven to prostitution simply to survive.
God teaches through examples: through the actions of individuals, the practices of the early church under apostolic direction, and sometimes His own actions. When God divorced Israel, He followed the Law He had given through Moses, emphasizing the need to provide a bill of divorcement. Why was this important? It showed what is required to end a marriage and free both parties to marry again.
Let's look now at the passage that tells us God divorced Israel and how he went about it:
Jer. 3:8 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce;
It is clear that God divorced Israel. They turned to other gods and refused to repent, so He gave them up. But why did He give a bill of divorce? What purpose did it serve?
Romans 7:2–3 is often used to argue that a divorced person may not remarry. However, verses 1 and 4 show that this interpretation misuses the passage and contradicts its teaching. Verse 1 identifies the audience as "them that know the Law" – Israel - and verse 4 shows that Jesus married Israel, the church, made up of both Jews and Gentiles (1 Cor. 12:13). If Jesus could marry one who had been divorced, then such a marriage cannot be sinful.
Paul's teaching to Christians who had questions relating to divorce and marriage
In 1 Cor. 7:1–2, Paul commands that every man and woman be allowed to have a spouse, giving the reason: "to avoid fornication." Later in the chapter, Paul refers to the "unmarried" (including the divorced) and commands that those who lack self-control be allowed to marry, saying, "let them marry" (vv. 8–9). His reasoning was, "it is better to marry than to burn," i.e., with passion. To make the point unmistakable, Paul then contrasts those who are "bound" (married) with those who are "loosed" (divorced) and says the "loosed" do not sin if they marry (vv. 27–28).
Why is this difficult for some to accept? If this teaching is true, there is no need to determine who was at fault, who filed first, or who should be punished following a divorce. It removes the role of prosecutor and judge from those who would seek to break up marriages and require celibacy, leaving the matter in God's hands.
Accepting this also removes the concern that Jesus is being falsely accused of teaching against God’s law on divorce - a law He, as an Old Testament prophet, was obligated to uphold. It also avoids the charge of "forbidding to marry," a doctrine that brings many harmful consequences.
Conclusion:
Your preacher may be supported by brethren who are unwilling - or whom he believes are unwilling - to hear this truth. Because of that, he may refuse to consider it, much less teach it, for fear of losing his support. I could not study or answer this truth properly until I was no longer dependent on brethren to provide for my family and me. I know some preachers who have been able to teach their elders and continue preaching full-time. If you are a preacher, perhaps, with God's help, you can do the same.
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For more study on this subject, visit my website: www.TotalHealth.bz
https://totalhealth.bz/divorce-and-remarriage-instruction-outcomes.htm
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